I'm very curious about how this works. I assume at the very least you have to pay the taxes and registration fees for the second car. I also would imagine that those may have to be paid out-of-pocket, because I doubt you could roll it into the financing of the first car.
But my real queastion is... How does the titling work? What would stop a person from going and buying car A in order to pay $1 (plus taxes) for car B then purposfully defaulting on Car A. What recourse would the dealership have? Can they reposes Car B?
It has the jurisprudence geek in me very intrigued!